Friday, June 19, 2020

DP-300 Administering Relational Databases on Microsoft Azure (beta) Exam

Candidates for this exam are database administrators and data management specialists that manage on-premises and cloud relational databases built on top of Microsoft SQL Server and Microsoft Azure data services.

The Azure Database Administrator implements and manages the operational aspects of cloud-native and hybrid data platform solutions built on Microsoft Azure data services and Microsoft SQL Server. The Azure Database Administrator uses a variety of methods and tools to perform day-to-day operations, including applying knowledge of using T-SQL for administrative management purposes.

This role is responsible for management, availability, security, and performance monitoring and optimization of modern relational database solutions. This role works with the Azure Data Engineer role to manage operational aspects of data platform solutions.

Beta exams are not scored immediately because we are gathering data on the quality of the questions and the exam. Learn more about the value and importance of beta exams.

Part of the requirements for: Microsoft Certified: Azure Database Administrator Associate

Skills measured
Plan and implement data platform resources (15-20%)
Implement a secure environment (15-20%)
Monitor and optimize operational resources (15-20%)
Optimize query performance (5-10%)
Perform automation of tasks (10-15%)
Plan and implement a High Availability and Disaster Recovery (HADR) environment (15-20%)
Perform administration by using T-SQL (10-15%)

Audience Profile
Candidates for this exam are database administrators and data management specialists that  manage on-premises and cloud relational databases built on top of SQL Server and Azure Data  Services.

The Azure Database Administrator implements and manages the operational aspects of cloud-native and hybrid data platform solutions built on Azure Data Services and SQL Server. The Azure Database Administrator uses a variety of methods and tools to perform day-to-day operations, including applying knowledge of using T-SQL for administrative management purposes.

This role is responsible for management, availability, security and performance monitoring and optimization of modern relational database solutions. This role works with the Azure Data Engineer role to manage operational aspects of data platform solutions.

Skills Measured
NOTE: The bullets that appear below each of the skills measured are intended to illustrate how  we are assessing that skill. This list is not definitive or exhaustive.

NOTE: In most cases, exams do NOT cover preview features, and some features will only be added to an exam when they are GA (General Availability).

Plan and Implement Data Platform Resources (15-20%)
Deploy resources by using manual methods
• deploy database offerings on selected platforms
• configure customized deployment templates
• apply patches and updates for hybrid and IaaS deployment


Recommend an appropriate database offering based on specific requirements
• evaluate requirements for the deployment
• evaluate the functional benefits/impact of possible database offerings
• evaluate the scalability of the possible database offering
• evaluate the HA/DR of the possible database offering
• evaluate the security aspects of the possible database offering

Configure resources for scale and performance
• configure Azure SQL database/elastic pools for scale and performance
• configure Azure SQL managed instances for scale and performance
• configure SQL Server in Azure VMs for scale and performance
• calculate resource requirements
• evaluate database partitioning techniques, such as database sharding

Evaluate a strategy for moving to Azure
• evaluate requirements for the migration
• evaluate offline or online migration strategies
• evaluate requirements for the upgrade
• evaluate offline or online upgrade strategies

Implement a migration or upgrade strategy for moving to Azure
• implement an online migration strategy
• implement an offline migration strategy
• implement an online upgrade strategy
• implement an offline upgrade strategy

Implement a Secure Environment (15-20%)

Configure database authentication by using platform and database tools
• configure Azure AD authentication
• create users from Azure AD identities
• configure security principals

Configure database authorization by using platform and database tools
• configure database and object-level permissions using graphical tools
• apply principle of least privilege for all securables

Implement security for data at rest
• implement Transparent Data Encryption (TDE)
• implement object-level encryption
• implement Dynamic Data Masking
• implement Azure Key Vault and disk encryption for Azure VMs

Implement security for data in transit
• configure SQL DB and database-level firewall rules
• implement Always Encrypted
• configure Azure Data Gateway

Implement compliance controls for sensitive data
• apply a data classification strategy
• configure server and database audits
• implement data change tracking
• perform vulnerability assessment

Monitor and Optimize Operational Resources (15-20%)

Monitor activity and performance
• prepare an operational performance baseline
• determine sources for performance metrics
• interpret performance metrics
• assess database performance by using Azure SQL Database Intelligent Performance
• configure and monitor activity and performance at the infrastructure, server, service, and
database levels

Implement performance-related maintenance tasks
• implement index maintenance tasks
• implement statistics maintenance tasks
• configure database auto-tuning
• automate database maintenance tasks
o Azure SQL agent jobs, Azure automation, SQL server agent jobs

• manage storage capacity

Identify performance-related issues
• configure Query Store to collect performance data
• identify sessions that cause blocking
• assess growth/fragmentation of databases and logs
• assess performance-related database configuration parameters
o including AutoClose, AutoShrink, AutoGrowth

Configure resources for optimal performance
• configure storage and infrastructure resources
o optimize IOPS, throughput, and latency
o optimize tempdb performance
o optimize data and log files for performance

• configure server and service account settings for performance
• configure Resource Governor for performance

Configure a user database for optimal performance
• implement database-scoped configuration
• configure compute resources for scaling
• configure Intelligent Query Processing (IQP)


Optimize Query Performance (5-10%)

Review query plans

• determine the appropriate type of execution plan
o live Query Statistics, Actual Execution Plan, Estimated Execution Plan, Showplan



• identify problem areas in execution plans
• extract query plans from the Query Store


Evaluate performance improvements

• determine the appropriate Dynamic Management Views (DMVs) to gather query
performance information
• identify performance issues using DMVs
• identify and implement index changes for queries
• recommend query construct modifications based on resource usage
• assess the use of hints for query performance


Review database table and index design

• identify data quality issues with duplication of data
• identify normal form of database
• assess index design for performance
• validate data types defined for columns
• recommend table and index storage including filegroups
• evaluate table partitioning strategy
• evaluate the use of compression for tables and indexes


Perform Automation of Tasks (10-15%)

Create scheduled tasks

• manage schedules for regular maintenance jobs
• configure multi-server automation



• configure notifications for task success/failure/non-completion


Evaluate and implement an alert and notification strategy

• create event notifications based on metrics
• create event notifications for Azure resources
• create alerts for server configuration changes
• create tasks that respond to event notifications


Manage and automate tasks in Azure

• perform automated deployment methods for resources
• automate Backups
• automate performance tuning and patching
• implement policies by using automated evaluation modes


Plan and Implement a High Availability and Disaster Recovery (HADR)
Environment (15-20%)

Recommend an HADR strategy for a data platform solution

• recommend HADR strategy based on RPO/RTO requirements
• evaluate HADR for hybrid deployments
• evaluate Azure-specific HADR solutions
• identify resources for HADR solutions


Test an HADR strategy by using platform, OS and database tools

• test HA by using failover
• test DR by using failover or restore


Perform backup and restore a database by using database tools

• perform a database backup with options
• perform a database restore with options
• perform a database restore to a point in time
• configure long-term backup retention


Configure DR by using platform and database tools

• configure replication
• configure Azure Site Recovery for a database offering


Configure HA using platform, OS and database tools


• create an Availability Group
• integrate a database into an Availability Group
• configure quorum options for a Windows Server Failover Cluster
• configure an Availability Group listener


Perform Administration by Using T-SQL (10-15%)

Examine system health

• evaluate database health using DMVs
• evaluate server health using DMVs
• perform database consistency checks by using DBCC


Monitor database configuration by using T-SQL

• assess proper database autogrowth configuration
• report on database free space
• review database configuration options


Perform backup and restore a database by using T-SQL

• prepare databases for AlwaysOn Availability Groups
• perform transaction log backup
• perform restore of user databases
• perform database backups with options


Manage authentication by using T-SQL

• manage certificates
• manage security principals


Manage authorization by using T-SQL

• configure permissions for users to access database objects
• configure permissions by using custom roles

QUESTION 1
You have a Microsoft SQL Server 2019 instance in an on-premises datacenter. The instance contains a 4-TB database named DB1.
You plan to migrate DB1 to an Azure SQL Database managed instance.
What should you use to minimize downtime and data loss during the migration?

A. distributed availability groups
B. database mirroring
C. log shipping
D. Database Migration Assistant

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
You have 20 Azure SQL databases provisioned by using the vCore purchasing model.
You plan to create an Azure SQL Database elastic pool and add the 20 databases.
Which three metrics should you use to size the elastic pool to meet the demands of your workload? Each
correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. total size of all the databases
B. geo-replication support
C. number of concurrently peaking databases * peak CPU utilization per database
D. maximum number of concurrent sessions for all the databases
E. total number of databases * average CPU utilization per database

Correct Answer: A,C,E

QUESTION 3
You have a new Azure SQL database. The database contains a column that stores confidential information.
You need to track each time values from the column are returned in a query. The tracking information must be
stored for 365 days from the date the query was executed.
Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. Turn on auditing and write audit logs to an Azure Storage account.
B. Add extended properties to the column.
C. Turn on Advanced Data Security for the Azure SQL server.
D. Apply sensitivity labels named Highly Confidential to the column.
E. Turn on Azure Advanced Threat Protection (ATP).

Correct Answer: A,C,D


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Tuesday, June 16, 2020

200-201 Understanding Cisco Cybersecurity Operations Fundamentals (CBROPS) Exam

Certification: Cisco Certified CyberOps Associate
Duration: 120 minutes (95 - 105 questions)
Available languages: English

Exam overview
This exam tests your knowledge and skills related to:
Security concepts
Security monitoring
Host-based analysis
Network intrusion analysis
Security policies and procedures

Exam Description
The Understanding Cisco Cybersecurity Operations Fundamentals (200-201 CBROPS) exam is a 120-minute assessment that is associated with the Cisco Certified CyberOps Associate certification. The CBROPS exam tests a candidate’s knowledge and skills related to security concepts, security monitoring, host-based analysis, network intrusion analysis, and security policies and procedures. The course, Understanding Cisco Cybersecurity Operations Fundamentals, helps candidates to prepare for this exam.

The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. To better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.

1.1 Describe the CIA triad

1.2 Compare security deployments

1.2.a Network, endpoint, and application security systems
1.2.b Agentless and agent-based protections
1.2.c Legacy antivirus and antimalware
1.2.d SIEM, SOAR, and log management

1.3 Describe security terms

1.3.a Threat intelligence (TI)
1.3.b Threat hunting
1.3.c Malware analysis
1.3.d Threat actor
1.3.e Run book automation (RBA)
1.3.f Reverse engineering
1.3.g Sliding window anomaly detection
1.3.h Principle of least privilege
1.3.i Zero trust
1.3.j Threat intelligence platform (TIP)

1.4 Compare security concepts

1.4.a Risk (risk scoring/risk weighting, risk reduction, risk assessment)
1.4.b Threat
1.4.c Vulnerability
1.4.d Exploit

1.5 Describe the principles of the defense-in-depth strategy

1.6 Compare access control models

1.6.a Discretionary access control
1.6.b Mandatory access control
1.6.c Nondiscretionary access control
1.6.d Authentication, authorization, accounting
1.6.e Rule-based access control
1.6.f Time-based access control
1.6.g Role-based access control

1.7 Describe terms as defined in CVSS

1.7.a Attack vector
1.7.b Attack complexity
1.7.c Privileges required
1.7.d User interaction
1.7.e Scope

1.8 Identify the challenges of data visibility (network, host, and cloud) in detection

1.9 Identify potential data loss from provided traffic profiles

1.10 Interpret the 5-tuple approach to isolate a compromised host in a grouped set of logs

1.11 Compare rule-based detection vs. behavioral and statistical detection

2.1 Compare attack surface and vulnerability

2.2 Identify the types of data provided by these technologies

2.2.a TCP dump
2.2.b NetFlow
2.2.c Next-gen firewall
2.2.d Traditional stateful firewall
2.2.e Application visibility and control
2.2.f Web content filtering
2.2.g Email content filtering

2.3 Describe the impact of these technologies on data visibility

2.3.a Access control list
2.3.b NAT/PAT
2.3.c Tunneling
2.3.d TOR
2.3.e Encryption
2.3.f P2P
2.3.g Encapsulation
2.3.h Load balancing

2.4 Describe the uses of these data types in security monitoring

2.4.a Full packet capture
2.4.b Session data
2.4.c Transaction data
2.4.d Statistical data
2.4.e Metadata
2.4.f Alert data

2.5 Describe network attacks, such as protocol-based, denial of service, distributed denial of service, and man-in-the-middle

2.6 Describe web application attacks, such as SQL injection, command injections, and cross-site scripting

2.7 Describe social engineering attacks

2.8 Describe endpoint-based attacks, such as buffer overflows, command and control (C2), malware, and ransomware

2.9 Describe evasion and obfuscation techniques, such as tunneling, encryption, and proxies

2.10 Describe the impact of certificates on security (includes PKI, public/private crossing the network, asymmetric/symmetric)

2.11 Identify the certificate components in a given scenario

2.11.a Cipher-suite
2.11.b X.509 certificates
2.11.c Key exchange
2.11.d Protocol version
2.11.e PKCS

3.1 Describe the functionality of these endpoint technologies in regard to security monitoring

3.1.a Host-based intrusion detection
3.1.b Antimalware and antivirus
3.1.c Host-based firewall
3.1.d Application-level whitelisting/blacklisting
3.1.e Systems-based sandboxing (such as Chrome, Java, Adobe Reader)

3.2 Identify components of an operating system (such as Windows and Linux) in a given scenario

3.3 Describe the role of attribution in an investigation

3.3.a Assets
3.3.b Threat actor
3.3.c Indicators of compromise
3.3.d Indicators of attack
3.3.e Chain of custody

3.4 Identify type of evidence used based on provided logs

3.4.a Best evidence
3.4.b Corroborative evidence
3.4.c Indirect evidence

3.5 Compare tampered and untampered disk image

3.6 Interpret operating system, application, or command line logs to identify an event

3.7 Interpret the output report of a malware analysis tool (such as a detonation chamber or sandbox)

3.7.a Hashes
3.7.b URLs
3.7.c Systems, events, and networking

4.1 Map the provided events to source technologies

4.1.a IDS/IPS
4.1.b Firewall
4.1.c Network application control
4.1.d Proxy logs
4.1.e Antivirus
4.1.f Transaction data (NetFlow)

4.2 Compare impact and no impact for these items

4.2.a False positive
4.2.b False negative
4.2.c True positive
4.2.d True negative
4.2.e Benign

4.3 Compare deep packet inspection with packet filtering and stateful firewall operation

4.4 Compare inline traffic interrogation and taps or traffic monitoring

4.5 Compare the characteristics of data obtained from taps or traffic monitoring and transactional data (NetFlow) in the analysis of network traffic

4.6 Extract files from a TCP stream when given a PCAP file and Wireshark

4.7 Identify key elements in an intrusion from a given PCAP file

4.7.a Source address
4.7.b Destination address
4.7.c Source port
4.7.d Destination port
4.7.e Protocols
4.7.f Payloads

4.8 Interpret the fields in protocol headers as related to intrusion analysis

4.8.a Ethernet frame
4.8.b IPv4
4.8.c IPv6
4.8.d TCP
4.8.e UDP
4.8.f ICMP
4.8.g DNS
4.8.h SMTP/POP3/IMAP
4.8.i HTTP/HTTPS/HTTP2
4.8.j ARP

4.9 Interpret common artifact elements from an event to identify an alert

4.9.a IP address (source / destination)
4.9.b Client and server port identity
4.9.c Process (file or registry)
4.9.d System (API calls)
4.9.e Hashes
4.9.f URI / URL

4.10 Interpret basic regular expressions

5.1 Describe management concepts

5.1.a Asset management
5.1.b Configuration management
5.1.c Mobile device management
5.1.d Patch management
5.1.e Vulnerability management

5.2 Describe the elements in an incident response plan as stated in NIST.SP800-61

5.3 Apply the incident handling process (such as NIST.SP800-61) to an event

5.4 Map elements to these steps of analysis based on the NIST.SP800-61

5.4.a Preparation
5.4.b Detection and analysis
5.4.c Containment, eradication, and recovery
5.4.d Post-incident analysis (lessons learned)

5.5 Map the organization stakeholders against the NIST IR categories (CMMC, NIST.SP800-61)

5.5.a Preparation
5.5.b Detection and analysis
5.5.c Containment, eradication, and recovery
5.5.d Post-incident analysis (lessons learned)

5.6 Describe concepts as documented in NIST.SP800-86

5.6.a Evidence collection order
5.6.b Data integrity
5.6.c Data preservation
5.6.d Volatile data collection

5.7 Identify these elements used for network profiling

5.7.a Total throughput
5.7.b Session duration
5.7.c Ports used
5.7.d Critical asset address space

5.8 Identify these elements used for server profiling

5.8.a Listening ports
5.8.b Logged in users/service accounts
5.8.c Running processes
5.8.d Running tasks
5.8.e Applications

5.9 Identify protected data in a network

5.9.a PII
5.9.b PSI
5.9.c PHI
5.9.d Intellectual property

5.10 Classify intrusion events into categories as defined by security models, such as Cyber Kill Chain Model and Diamond Model of Intrusion

5.11 Describe the relationship of SOC metrics to scope analysis (time to detect, time to contain, time to respond, time to control)


QUESTION 1
Which type of algorithm encrypts data bit by bit?

A. block
B. asymmetric
C. stream
D. symmetric

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which of the following is deployed on an endpoint as an agent or standalone application?

A. NIPS
B. NGFW
C. HIDS
D. NIDS

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which of the following represents an exploitable, unpatched, and unmitigated weakness in software?

A. vulnerability
B. exploit
C. threat
D. breach

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which of the following describes a TCP injection attack?

A. Many TCP SYN packets are captures with the same sequence number, source, and destination IP address, but different payloads.
B. there is an abnormally high volume of scanning from numerous sources
C. many TCP SYN packets are captured with the same sequence number, but different source and destination IP addresses and different payloads
D. an attacker performs actions slower than normal

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
How are attributes of ownership and control of an object managed in Linux?

A. permissions
B. rights
C. iptables
D. processes

Correct Answer: A


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Tuesday, May 12, 2020

Google Professional Collaboration Engineer Exam

Professional Collaboration Engineer
A Professional Collaboration Engineer transforms business objectives into tangible configurations, policies, and security practices as they relate to users, content, and integrations. Collaboration Engineers leverage their understanding of their organization’s mail routing and identity management infrastructure to enable efficient and secure communication and data access. Operating with an engineering and solutions mindset, they use tools, programming languages, and APIs to automate workflows. They look for opportunities to educate end users and increase operational efficiency while advocating for G Suite and the Google toolset.

The Professional Collaboration Engineer exam assesses your ability to:
Plan and implement G Suite authorization and access
Manage user, resource, and Team Drive lifecycles
Manage mail
Control and configure G Suite services
Configure and manage endpoint access
Monitor organizational operations
Advance G Suite adoption and collaboration

Related job roles: IT systems administrator, cloud solutions engineer, enterprise collaboration engineer, systems engineer
About this certification exam
Length: 2 hours
Registration fee: $200 (plus tax where applicable)
Languages: English, Japanese
Exam format: Multiple choice and multiple select, taken in person at a test center. Locate a test center near you.
Prerequisites: None
Recommended experience: 3+ years of industry experience including 1+ year G Suite administration experience.

1. Review the exam guide
The exam guide contains a complete list of topics that may be included on the exam. Review the exam guide to determine if your skills align with the topics on the exam.

2. Training
G Suite logo
G Suite Administration Specialization
Register
Professional Collaboration Engineer Practice Exam

Check your readiness for the Collaboration Engineer exam
Learn more

3. Hands-on practice
This exam is designed to test technical skills related to the job role. In addition to being familiar with the day-to-day tasks carried out by the G Suite administrator, use the hands-on labs available on Qwiklabs to learn about G Suite integrations to level up your knowledge and skills.

4. Additional resources
In-depth discussions on the concepts and critical components of G Suite:

5. Assess your knowledge
Familiarize yourself with the types of questions that will be on the exam. Check your readiness to take this exam.

6. Schedule your exam
Register and find a location near you.


QUESTION 1
Madeupcorp.com is in the process of migrating from a third-party email system to G Suite. The VP of
Marketing is concerned that her team already administers the corporate AdSense, AdWords, and YouTube
channels using their @madeupcorp.com email addresses, but has not tracked which users have access to
which service. You need to ensure that there is no disruption.
What should you do?

A. Run the Transfer Tool for Unmanaged users.
B. Use a Google Form to survey the Marketing department users.
C. Assure the VP that there is no action required to configure G Suite.
D. Contact Google Enterprise Support to identify affected users.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Your company has an OU that contains your sales team and an OU that contains your market research team.
The sales team is often a target of mass email from legitimate senders, which is distracting to their job duties.
The market research team also receives that email content, but they want it because it often contains
interesting market analysis or competitive intelligence. Constant Contact is often used as the source of these
messages. Your company also uses Constant Contact for your own mass email marketing. You need to set
email controls at the Sales OU without affecting your own outgoing email or the market research OU.
What should you do?

A. Create a blocked senders list as the Sales OU that contains the mass email sender addresses, but bypass this setting for Constant Contact emails.
B. Create a blocked senders list at the root level, and then an approved senders list at the Market Research OU, both containing the mass email sender addresses.
C. Create a blocked senders list at the Sales OU that contains the mass email sender addresses.
D. Create an approved senders list at the Market Research OU that contains the mass email sender addresses.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Your organization is part of a highly regulated industry with a very high turnover. In order to recycle licenses
for new employees and comply with data retention regulations, it has been determined that certain G Suite
data should be stored in a separate backup environment.
How should you store data for this situation?

A. Use routing rules to dual-deliver mail to an on-premises SMTP server and G Suite.
B. Write a script and use G Suite APIs to access and download user data.
C. Use a third-party tool to configure secure backup of G Suite data.
D. Train users to use Google Takeout and store their archives locally.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Your organization is on G Suite Enterprise and allows for external sharing of Google Drive files to facilitate
collaboration with other G Suite customers. Recently you have had several incidents of files and folders being
broadly shared with external users and groups. Your chief security officer needs data on the scope of external
sharing and ongoing alerting so that external access does not have to be disabled.
What two actions should you take to support the chief security officer's request? (Choose two.)

A. Review who has viewed files using the Google Drive Activity Dashboard.
B. Create an alert from Drive Audit reports to notify of external file sharing.
C. Review total external sharing in the Aggregate Reports section.
D. Create a custom Dashboard for external sharing in the Security Investigation Tool.
E. Automatically block external sharing using DLP rules.

Correct Answer: B,E
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Monday, June 26, 2017

C2090-610 DB2 10.1 Fundamentals

Test information:
Number of questions: 69
Time allowed in minutes: 90
Required passing score: 66%
Languages: English, Japanese

This Database Associate certification is an entry level exam for a user of any of the DB2 family of products. This individual is knowledgeable about the fundamental concepts of DB2 10.1 through either hands on experience or formal and informal education. The database associate should have an in-depth knowledge of the basic to intermediate tasks required in day-to-day administration, basic SQL (Structured Query Language), understand which additional products are available with DB2 10.1, understand how to create databases and database objects, and have a basic knowledge of database security and transaction isolation.

Section 1 - Planning (10%)
Knowledge of DB2 products (z/OS vs LUW vs pureScale - at a high-level; different products and what they do)
Knowledge of database workloads (appropriate DB2 product to use - OLTP vs warehousing)
Knowledge of non-relational data concepts (XML data, LOB data)

Section 2 - Security (15%)
Knowledge of restricting data access
Knowledge of different privileges and authorities
Given a DCL SQL statement, knowledge to identify results (grant/revoke/connect statements)
Knowledge of Row and Column Access Control (RCAC)
Knowledge of Roles and Trusted Contexts

Section 3 - Working with Databases and Database Objects (20%)
Ability to create and connect to DB2 servers and databases (requirements to give ability to connect)
Ability to identify DB2 objects
Knowledge of basic characteristics and properties of DB2 objects
Given a DDL SQL statement, knowledge to identify results (ability to create objects)
Knowledge of Temporal (Time Travel) Tables - System-period, Application-period, and Bi-temporal - ability to create (Greater precision time stamps)

Section 4 - Working with DB2 Data using SQL (20%)
Ability to use SQL to SELECT data from tables
Ability to use SQL to SORT or GROUP data
Ability to use SQL to UPDATE, DELETE, or INSERT data
Knowledge of transactions (i.e., commit/rollback and transaction boundaries)
Ability to create and call an SQL supported procedure or a user defined function (understanding of passing parameters and results)
Given an XQuery statement, knowledge to identify results
Knowledge of Temporal (Time Travel) Tables - System-period, Application-period, and Bi-temporal - ability to query

Section 5 - Working with DB2 Tables, Views and Indexes (22%)
Ability to demonstrate usage of DB2 data types (XML data types, Oracle compatibility data types)
Given a situation, ability to create a temporary table
Knowledge to identify when referential integrity should be used
Knowledge to identify methods of data constraint
Knowledge to identify characteristics of a table, view or index
Knowledge to identify when triggers should be used
Knowledge of schemas

Section 6 - Data Concurrency (13%)
Knowledge to identify factors that influence locking
Ability to list objects on which locks can be obtained (lock table)
Knowledge to identify characteristics of DB2 locks (common locks shared across platforms)
Given a situation, knowledge to identify the isolation levels that should be used (currently committed)



QUESTION 1
If the following command is executed: CREATE DATABASE test What is the page size (in kilobytes) of thedatabase?

A. 4
B. 8
C. 16
D. 32

Answer: A


QUESTION 2
Given the following DDL statement: CREATE TABLE sales (item CHAR(20)); If a DBA wishes to increase the size of the ITEM column, which SQL statement needs to be used?

A. ALTER TABLE sales ADD COLUMN item CHAR(40);
B. ALTER TABLE sales ALTER COLUMN item CHAR(40);
C. ALTER TABLE sales MODIFY COLUMN item CHAR(40);
D. ALTER TABLE sales ALTER COLUMN item SET DATA TYPE CHAR(40);

Answer: D


QUESTION 3
Which DB2 object can be used to improve theexecution performance of qualified SELECT statements?

A. Trigger
B. SQL Procedure
C. Sequence Object
D. Materialized Query Table

Answer: D


QUESTION 4
When is it appropriate to use a sequence?

A. When you want to control the order in which triggersare fired.
B. When you want to control the order in which stored procedures can be invoked.
C. When you want to automatically generate a numeric value that is not tied to any specific column or table.
D. When you want to automatically generate a numeric value for each row that is added to a specific table.

Answer: C


Monday, August 1, 2016

Exam 70-511 TS: Windows Applications Development with Microsoft .NET Framework 4

Published: July 2, 2010
Languages: English
Audiences: Developers
Technology: Microsoft Visual Studio 2010
Credit toward certification: MCTS

Skills measured
This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below. The percentages indicate the relative weight of each major topic area on the exam. The higher the percentage, the more questions you are likely to see on that content area on the exam. View video tutorials about the variety of question types on Microsoft exams.

Please note that the questions may test on, but will not be limited to, the topics described in the bulleted text.

Do you have feedback about the relevance of the skills measured on this exam? Please send Microsoft your comments. All feedback will be reviewed and incorporated as appropriate while still maintaining the validity and reliability of the certification process. Note that Microsoft will not respond directly to your feedback. We appreciate your input in ensuring the quality of the Microsoft Certification program.

If you have concerns about specific questions on this exam, please submit an exam challenge.

If you have other questions or feedback about Microsoft Certification exams or about the certification program, registration, or promotions, please contact your Regional Service Center.

Building a user interface by using basic techniques (23%)
Choose the most appropriate control class
Evaluating design requirements and then selecting the most appropriate control based on those requirements; recognizing when none of the standard controls meet requirements; item controls, menu controls, content controls
This objective does not include: designing a custom control
Implement screen layout by using nested control hierarchies
Using panel-derived controls, attaching properties
This objective does not include: items controls, control customization
Create and apply styles and theming
Application-level styles, overriding styles, style inheritance, Generic.xaml, theming attributes
This objective does not include: data-grid view style sharing
Manage reusable resources
Fonts, styles, data sources, images, resource dictionaries, resource-only DLLs
Implement an animation in WPF
Creating a storyboard; controlling timelines; controlling the behavior when the animation completes; double, color, and point animations; starting an animation from code and from XAML
This objective does not include: direct rendering updates, implementing key frame animations

Preparation resources
Styling and templating
Layout system
Animation tips and tricks

Enhancing a user interface by using advanced techniques (21%)
Manage routed events in WPF
Tunneling vs. bubbling events, handling and cancelling events
This objective does not include: simple event handling; creating custom events
Configure WPF commanding
Defining WPF commands based on RoutedCommand; associating commands to controls; handling commands; command bindings; input gestures
This objective does not include: creating custom commands by implementing ICommand
Modify the visual interface at run time
Adding/removing controls at run time; manipulating the visual tree; control life cycle; generating a template dynamically
This objective does not include: instantiating forms and simple modification of control properties at runtime
Implement user-defined controls
Deciding whether to use a user/composite, extended, or custom control; creating a user/composite control; extending from an existing control
This objective does not include: creating a custom control by inheriting directly from the control class and writing code
Create and display graphics
Creating and displaying graphics by using geometric transformation; brushes; drawing shapes; clipping; double buffering; overriding render (WPF) and OnPaint (WinForms); differentiating between retained and non-retained graphics
This objective does not include: creating and displaying three-dimensional graphics; hit testing; creating images
Add multimedia content to an application in WPF
Media player vs. media element; adding a sound player; images
This objective does not include: buffering
Create and apply control templates in WPF
Template binding
This objective does not include: styling and theming; data templating
Create data, event, and property triggers in WPF

Preparation resources
Input and commands how-to topics
Control styles and templates

Managing data at the user interface layer (23%)
Implement data binding
Binding options, static and dynamic resources, element bindings, setting the correct binding mode and update mode; binding to nullable values
This objective does not include: binding to a specific data source
Implement value converters in WPF
Implementing custom value converters, implementing multivalue converters
Implement data validation
Handling validation and providing user feedback via the error provider (WinForms) or data templates (WPF), IDataErrorInfo, validation control, form validation and control validation
Implement and consume change notification interfaces
Implementing INotifyPropertyChanged; using INotifyCollectionChanged (ObservableCollection)
Prepare collections of data for display
Filtering, sorting, and grouping data; LINQ; CollectionView (WPF), BindingSource object (WinForms)
Bind to hierarchical data
TreeView; MenuControl
Implement data-bound controls
Using the DataGridView (WinForms) or DataGrid (WPF) control to display and update the data contained in a data source, implementing complex data binding to integrate data from multiple sources; ItemsControl-derived controls (WPF)
Create a data template in WPF
Implementing a data template selector; using templates with ItemsControl

Preparation resources
Data binding (WPF)
DataGrid

Enhancing the functionality and usability of a solution (17%)
Integrate WinForms and WPF within an application
Using ElementHosts within WinForms and ControlHosts within WPF; using the PropertyMap property
Implement asynchronous processes and threading
Implementing asynchronous programming patterns; marshalling between threads; freezing UI elements; using timers; task parallel library; parallel LINQ; using the dispatcher; BackgroundWorker component
Incorporate globalization and localization features
Loading resources by locale; marking localizable elements; using culture settings in validators and converters; using language properties and rendering direction properties; working with resource files for localization; determining installed locales; regional settings
Implement drag and drop operations within and across applications
This objective does not include: Dynamic Data Exchange (DDE)
Implement security features of an application
Configuring Software Restriction Policy (SRP); full trust and partially trusted security; interoperability with legacy CAS policy; User Account Control (UAC)
Manage user and application settings
Creating application settings; creating user settings; loading and saving settings
This objective does not include: persisting to database
Implement dependency properties
Enabling data binding and animation, property metadata, property change callbacks

Preparation resources
WPF and Windows Forms interoperation
How to: Perform drag-and-drop operations between applications
Dependency properties overview

Stabilizing and releasing a solution (16%)
Implement a WPF test strategy
Automation peer, UI automation, IntelliTrace
Debug XAML by using the WPF visualizer
Accessing the visualizer, drilling down into the visual tree, viewing and changing properties
This objective does not include: setting a breakpoint and stepping through code
Debug WPF issues by using PresentationTraceSources
Animation, data binding, dependency properties
Configure a ClickOnce deployment
Configuring the installation of a WinForms, WPF, or XBAP application by using ClickOnce technology; choosing appropriate settings to manage upgrades
Create and configure a Windows installer project
Configuring a setup project to add icons during setup, setting deployment project properties, configuring conditional installation based on operating system versions, setting appropriate launch conditions based on the .NET framework version, adding custom actions to a setup project, adding error-handling code to a setup project
Configure deployment security settings
Configuring and integrating UAC by using ClickOnce deployments; setting appropriate security permissions to deploy the application

Preparation resources
Debugging WPF – WPF Tree Visualizer and helper class
PresentationTraceSources class
How to: Use ClickOnce to deploy applications that can run on multiple versions of the .NET Framework

QUESTION 1
You use Microsoft .NET Framework 4 to create a Windows Forms application.
You add a new class named Customer to the application. You select the Customer class to create a new object data source.
You add the following components to a Windows Form:
? A BindingSource component named customerBindingSource that is data-bound to the Customer object data source.
? A set of TextBox controls to display and edit the Customer object properties. Each TextBox control is data-bound to a property of the customerBindingSource component.
? An ErrorProvider component named errorProvider that validates the input values for each TextBox control.
You need to ensure that the input data for each TextBox control is automatically validated by using the ErrorProvider component.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A. Implement the validation rules inside the Validating event handler of each TextBox control by throwing an exception when the value is invalid.
B. Implement the validation rules inside the TextChanged event handler of each TextBox control by throwing an exception when the value is invalid.
C. Implement the validation rules inside the setter of each property of the Customer class by throwing an exception when the value is invalid.
D. Add the following code segment to the InitializeComponent method of the Windows Form.
this.errorProvider.DataSource = this.customerBindingSource;
E. Add the following code segment to the InitializeComponent method of the Windows Form.
this.errorProvider.DataSource = this.customerBindingSource.DataSource; this. errorProvider. DataMember = this. customerBindingSource. DataMember;

Answer: C,D


QUESTION 2
You use Microsoft Visual Studio 2010 and Microsoft .NET Framework 4 to create a Windows Presentation Foundation (WPF) application.
The application contains a ListBox control named IbxItems that is data-bound to a collection of objects. Each object has a DisplayValue property.
You add a Button control to the application.
You need to ensure that the Content property of the Button control is data-bound to the DisplayValue property of the selected item of IbxItems.
Which binding expression should you use?

A. {Binding ElementName= IbxItems, Source=SelectedItem, Path=DisplayValue}
B. {Binding Source=lbxItems, ElementName=SelectedItem, Path=DisplayValue}
C. {Binding ElementName=lbxItems, Path=SelectedItem.DisplayValue}
D. {Binding Source=lbxItems, Path=SelectedItem.DisplayValue}

Answer: C


QUESTION 3
You use Microsoft Visual Studio 2010 and Microsoft .NET Framework 4 to create a Windows Presentation Foundation (WPF) application.
You write the following code fragment.
< TextBox Text="{Binding Path=StringMember} " / >
You need to ensure that the StringMember property of the data-bound object is updated immediately when the user types in the TextBox control.
Which binding expression should you use?

A. { Binding Path=StringMember, Mode=TwoWay }
B. { Binding Path=StringMember, NotifyOnSourceUpdated=True }
C. { Binding Path-StringMember, NotifyOnTargetUpdated=True }
D. { Binding Path=StringMember, UpdateSourceTrigger=PropertyChanged }

Answer: D


QUESTION 4
You use Microsoft .NET Framework 4 to create a Windows Presentation Foundation (WPF) application.
You add a ListBox control to the application. The ListBox control is data-bound to an instance of a custom collection class of the Product objects named ProductList.
The number of items of the data-bound collection is fixed. However, users can modify the properties of each of the Product objects in the collection.
You need to ensure that changes made on the Product objects are automatically reflected in the ListBox control.
What should you do?

A. Implement the INotifyPropertyChanged interface in the Product class.
B. Implement the INotifyCollectionChanged interface in the ProductList class.
C. Set the Mode property of the Binding object of the ListBox control to TwoWay.
D. Set the UpdateSourceTrigger property of the Binding object of the ListBox control to PropertyChanged.

Answer: A

Wednesday, July 27, 2016

Exam 70-498 Delivering Continuous Value with Visual Studio Application Lifecycle Management

Published: June 8, 2014
Languages: English, Chinese (Simplified), French, German, Japanese, Portuguese (Brazil)
Audiences: IT professionals
Technology: Visual Studio 2015
Credit toward certification: MCP, MCSD

Skills measured
This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below. The percentages indicate the relative weight of each major topic area on the exam. The higher the percentage, the more questions you are likely to see on that content area on the exam. View video tutorials about the variety of question types on Microsoft exams.

Please note that the questions may test on, but will not be limited to, the topics described in the bulleted text.

Do you have feedback about the relevance of the skills measured on this exam? Please send Microsoft your comments. All feedback will be reviewed and incorporated as appropriate while still maintaining the validity and reliability of the certification process. Note that Microsoft will not respond directly to your feedback. We appreciate your input in ensuring the quality of the Microsoft Certification program.

If you have concerns about specific questions on this exam, please submit an exam challenge.

If you have other questions or feedback about Microsoft Certification exams or about the certification program, registration, or promotions, please contact your Regional Service Center.

Define an effective end-to-end Software Development Lifecycle (SDLC) (15-20%)
Understand the value of an end-to-end view of Application Lifecycle Management (ALM) tools and practices
Understand that an observable problem may be indicative of a more general process issue; explain the difference between optimizing a piece of the ALM process, such as manual testing, and optimizing the entire ALM process
Explain the benefits of fast feedback
Explain the importance of fast feedback related to communicating requirements, explain the benefits of end customer feedback to early software iterations
Implement strategies to reduce end-to-end cycle time
Identify bottlenecks in the delivery process, identify metrics that highlight bottlenecks, create potential solutions whose effectiveness can be validated, understand the relationship between work in process (WIP) and cycle time
Implement strategies to improve software quality
Identify process steps that introduce defects, understand the end-to-end quality process, bring quality efforts early in the development cycle
Implement strategies to reduce waste
Identify wasteful activities, create strategies to eliminate waste, measure the effectiveness of waste removal activities
Create a process improvement plan
Create strategies for implementing organizational change, identify key metrics to be tracked during the improvement effort, create consensus for the change

Preparation resources
Agile software development with Microsoft Visual Studio ALM
Applying ALM with Visual Studio 2012: (02) Define an effective end-to-end software development lifecycle
Adopting Visual Studio and Team Foundation Server for Application Lifecycle Management

Define the ALM process (15-20%)
Role of different ALM processes
Understand the cost and benefits of the key ALM processes, including agile, scrum, waterfall, and Capability Maturity Model Integration (CMMI)
Implement a scrum/agile process
Establish self-organizing teams; holding a scrum/agile planning meeting, hold daily scrums/stand-up meetings, hold retrospective meetings, hold scrum review meetings
Define a scrum/agile process for a team
Establish criteria on when to cancel a sprint/iteration, establish tooling and process for scrum/agile artifacts, establish the scrum definition of "done," determine sprint/iteration length, determine how to handle backlog items/user stories not completed in a sprint/iteration, determine how to monitor sprint/iteration progress, use collaborative tools
Implement Microsoft Solution Framework (MSF) for CMMI process improvement
Establish project drivers (scope-driven, date-driven), assign product requirements to iterations, manage changes, manage issues

Preparation resources
Applying ALM with Visual Studio 2012: (03) Define the ALM process
MSF for Agile Software Development v5.0

Define a software iteration (15-20%)
Plan a release
Identify a flexibility matrix, identify releases based on priority items in flexibility matrix and release criteria, resource planning (scrum team is responsible for allocating team members), identify techniques to optimize a team that is geographically distributed, select a project methodology, risk management
Define a project-tracking process
Plan and manage a portfolio of multiple projects, identify a project tracking tool and an associated process (triage process, bug management), define how to manage effort, determine team forecast management, define a prioritization scheme, determine how to validate project health
Scope a project
Scope the effort for a release, define an architecture design process, define scope boundaries (is/is not list), determine the definition of “done,” define a process when effort estimates are significantly inaccurate

Preparation resources
Applying ALM with Visual Studio 2012: (04) Define a software iteration
Planning an iteration (CMMI)
Reports (SQL Server Reporting Services)

Define end value for the software iteration (15-20%)
Elicit requirements
Define project requirements, review and clarify requirements, define acceptance criteria, define UI platform requirements (web, mobile), assign a business value
Estimate requirements
Manage and assign effort estimates (assign story points); resize user requirements into smaller, manageable pieces; execute task breakdown; estimate the requirements baseline
Document requirements
Define acceptance criteria, list requirements, add requirement details, design UI storyboards
Prioritize requirements
Identify requirements that are critical path, identify must-have requirements, enable the entire team (including customers) to participate in requirements prioritization, identify dependencies

Preparation resources
Managing requirements and user expectations in agile projects
Applying ALM with Visual Studio 2012: (05) Define end value for the software iteration
Develop requirements

Develop customer value with high quality (15-20%)
Define code quality indicators
Perform code review, including security and performance analysis; analyze code for common defects; calculate code coverage; perform architecture validation
Incorporate unit testing
Establish unit test standards, develop a strategy for adding unit tests to existing applications, select the unit test type, establish the code coverage target, use shims and stubs to isolate your application
Develop code
Develop maintainable code; define coding standards; define application architecture; define configuration management process and tooling, including source control tree, branching strategy, solution structure, source control/check-in policy; manage multiple repositories using Git; use architecture, model, and design tools; use quality and diagnostic tools
Validate quality
Organize test artifacts, such as test cases, suites, plans, and requirements; define test strategy; manage test execution; perform cloud-based load testing; identify test types and associated tools; identify and configure environments; analyze test runs
Customize a team project
Customize a work item, customize work item queries, customize Team Portal, identify areas and iterations, manage roles and associated permissions

Preparation resources
Applying ALM with Visual Studio 2012: (06) Develop customer value with high quality
Verifying code by using unit tests
Customize team projects and processes

Integrate development and operations (15-20%)
Implement an automated deployment process
Architect an automated build and deploy workflow, integrate automated tests, automate deployment into both test and production environments, review diagnostic logs for builds, manage releases including Release Management
Implement pre-production environments
Automate the creation of virtual test lab environments, automate deployment into virtual test environments
Manage feedback between development and operations
Implement tools to simplify communication; identify, measure, and report key analytics and performance indicators, such as cycle time and mean time to repair (MTTR); create appropriate shared artifacts and process to facilitate communication; standardize required artifacts for defect reports; create strategies for test case reuse (both automated and manual) in production; monitor an application in production to optimize usage and performance
Troubleshoot production issues
Gather defect data from bugs in a production setting, provide actionable data to the development team, monitor applications running in production for potential issues, manage incident response times collaboratively between development and operations, use Application Insights appropriately

Preparation resources
Applying ALM with Visual Studio 2012: (07) Integrate development and operations
Setting up test machines to run tests or collect data
DevOps: Integrating development and operations for the last mile velocity



QUESTION 1
You are utilizing the Microsoft Visual Studio Scrum 2.0 process template.
Your development team uses the storyboard feature in Visual Studio 2012.
You need to ensure that there is consistency of user interface between different features of the product.
What should you do?

A. Create a design guide document with images of sample standard layouts. Provide a copy of this document to all team members.
B. Create custom storyboard shapes by using Microsoft PowerPoint that match your corporate standard user interface (UI) controls. Export these and make them available to the team as an import for use in all storyboards.
C. Create custom storyboard shapes in PowerPoint that match your corporate standard UI controls. Save the results as a PowerPoint template in the SharePoint site associated with the Team project collection. Instruct team members to import the shapes.
D. Create images of your UI controls as GIF/JPEG files that match your corporate standard UI controls. Export these and make them available to the team as an import for use in all storyboards.

Answer: B


QUESTION 2
You manage a software development project that includes multiple feature teams. The teams integrate their code into a shared code repository as frequently as possible.
You plan to configure a build definition by using the default build process template (DefaultTemplate.xaml).
You need to know when a check-in from a feature team has broken the build or caused a test to fail, without impacting the feature team.
What should you do?

A. Set the Analyze Test Impact parameter to True in the build process template.
B. Set the build trigger to Continuous Integration and enable automated testing.
C. Add the Builds check-in policy to your team project.
D. Create a shelveset command for pending changes. Queue a build using the latest source with the shelveset parameter.

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
You are a scrum master.
You need to lead the daily scrum meeting.
Which three questions should you ask? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)

A. What will be done before the next meeting?
B. What went well?
C. What has been accomplished since the last meeting?
D. Are there any potential improvements?
E. What obstacles are in the way?
F. Is the burndown up to date?

Answer: A,C,E


QUESTION 4
You manage a project that has three teams working in parallel on a single codebase using a Scrum process methodology.
You need to ensure that each team can manage work separately while editing a shared code base.
What should you do?

A. Within a single team project, create separate iteration paths for each team. Assign each team member to their respective iteration path.
B. Create a team project for each team, assigning different team members to each team project.
C. Within a single team project, create three teams. Assign each team member to their respective teams.
D. Create a team project for each team, assigning all team members to each team project.

Answer: C


QUESTION 5
Your development team is using the Microsoft Solution Framework (MSF) for Capability Maturity Model Integration (CMMI) Process Improvement 6.0 process template.
The team has identified all of the acceptance criteria for a new application. This data currently resides in a series of spreadsheets.
You need to enter the criteria into TFS for team traceability and tracking.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A. Create test case work items for each criterion in the spreadsheet. Link the test case work items with the work item(s) for the appropriate requirements.
B. Create Requirement work items.
C. Create a new task work item for each criterion in the spreadsheet. Set the Triage attribute for each task work item to Information Received.
D. Create a new quality of service test case work item for each criterion in the spreadsheet. Link the quality of service test case work items with the work item(s) for the appropriate requirements.

Answer: A,B

Tuesday, October 20, 2015

77-881 Word 2010


QUESTION 1
Your work at ABC.com includes the preparation of company documents using Microsoft Office
Word 2010.
You are in the process of typing a 50 page document. You want to use different headers and
footers throughout the document.
How can you insert a header on pages 10 to 20 without the header appearing on the other pages
in the document?

A. You should make use of the Section Break function on the Page Layout tab before inserting the
header.
B. You should select pages 10 to 20 and using the Insert Header function on the Insert tab.
C. You should make use of the Insert Header function on the Insert tab from any page in the
document then specifying the page numbers in the header properties.
D. You should make use of the Page margin function on the Page Layout tab before inserting the
header.

Answer: A

Explanation:


QUESTION 2
You work in the office at ABC.com. You are using Microsoft Office Word 2010 to prepare a
document.
You have added a picture to your document. You want to change the Color Saturation of the
picture to 0%.
How would you change the Color Saturation of the picture in the document?

A. You should make use of the Corrections function on the Format tab.
B. You should make use of the Themes function on the Page Layout tab.
C. You should make use of the Font Effects function on the Format tab.
D. You should make use of the Color function on the Format tab.

Answer: D

Explanation:


QUESTION 3
Your work at ABC.com includes the preparation of company documents using Microsoft Office
Word 2010.
You are writing some documentation for a company product. You need to add a note that refers to
a piece of text within the document.
Which function of Word 2010 should you use?

A. You should make use of the Text Box function on the Insert tab.
B. You should make use of the Cross-reference function on the References tab.
C. You should make use of the Footnote function on the References tab.
D. You should make use of the Footer function on the Insert tab.

Answer: C

Explanation:


QUESTION 4
You work at ABC.com. You are using Microsoft Office Word 2010 to review a document written by
your manager. While reviewing the document, you notice a section that you think should be
changed. You want to insert a comment to recommend the change.
On which tab would you find the New Comment option?

A. Insert.
B. Page Layout.
C. References.
D. Review.
E. View.

Answer: D

Explanation:


QUESTION 5
You work in the office at ABC.com. You use Microsoft Office Word 2010 to create and edit
company documents.
Different text formats, fonts and text sizes are used throughout the document. You need to simplify
the task of applying formats to different sections throughout the document.
What is the easiest way to apply several formats to sections of text in the document?

A. You should consider creating a theme using the Themes function on the Page Layout tab.
B. You should consider selecting the text and using the formatting tools in the Font group on the
Home tab.
C. You should consider creating a Quick Style using the Styles function on the Home tab.
D. You should consider making use of the WordArt function on the Insert tab.

Answer: C

Explanation: